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I tried to read the wikipedia article that answers this question, but found it difficult to understand Ask question asked 4 years, 1 month ago modified 3 years, 11 months ago Ditto with the related lse question
CULTIVO DE LA MORA: Origen
Is the concept of syllables pronuncia. If mora are potentially sufficient to describe language, then what do syllables add, in theory The ages, races, and population density of mora county, new mexico tell a story
Understand the shifts in demographic trends with these charts visualizing decades of population data.
Due to persistent and intensive language contact, indian languages share many features This prompted emeneau 1 to describe these languages as belonging to a common linguistic area or sprachbund. What that means with respect to the definitions it puts forward, i don't know. A mora is an object which allows the possibility of representational contrastiveness, so if a language has short and long vowels, that can be represented via one versus two moras on a vowel.
The pitch may fall across both morae, or mostly on one or the other (depending on the sequence of sounds)—that is, the first mora may end with a high falling pitch, or the second may begin with a (low) falling pitch, but the first mora will be considered accented regardless Why not just light/medium/heavy?!) is there an example from generative phonology that explains this Sometimes all this theoretical stuff confuses me Is there a standard representation that combines onset, nucleus, coda with mora
